Thursday, May 7, 2009

John 11:35

Really I have questions about this whole passage, but semi-randomly I thought about this particular verse the other day. It is quite possibly the shortest verse in the Bible, but what really does it mean? I mean, why did He weep? He knew He was going to raise Lazarus from the dead way back in verse 4. Was he empathizing with the crowd in their loss? And why was He troubled by their weeping? What is going on here? What is there to be sad about? Was Lazarus in hell? Because that would be sad, even if it was only for a short time. Which brings me to another thought. Did all Jews before Jesus go to hell? Excepting of course Moses, Abraham, David, and others specifically mentioned as righteous. I mean if God is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow and no one comes to the Father except through Jesus, then I think it would have to be "yes." Wouldn't it? I suppose we can never really know the answer to that. I think I'm going to have to study this passage some more.
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  1. Lorraine-boMay 7, 2009 at 4:12 PM

    Hey Jenny ...
    Lots o' questions there & I know that I can't answer them; but I did have a couple of thoughts:

    1. Jesus, while fully God, was fully man with human emotions. We weep when someone we love dies, and I believe He experienced the same.

    2. I believe God is the same - He demands sacrifice for sin - it's just in the OT it was animals and rituals - for us, it's Jesus, so I don't believe all Jews before Jesus went to Hell. After all, would He call them His chosen, but not make a way for them to obtain life with Him after death just because it was before Jesus?

    Praise God we came AFTER Christ!
    Love,
    Lorraine

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